Thanks, Mark, for the explicit statement: 1 raked hand = 1 MPP
Any rake over $1 equates to ONE MPP, in that case.
But, is that based on the total rake for the whole table? - or solely on the player's share of the rake, after it has been divided up by the number of players dealt cards?
I am not totally clear about how your comment about rake being divided between players dealt cards at the table fits into the equation. That makes it sound like your MPPs are based only your share of the rake per hand.
Example:
You have a pot of $20. The total rake is $1.00
There were 10 players dealt cards at the table.
Each player's share of the rake is therefore only $1 divided by 10, which = .10$.
Therefore, none of the players earned any MPPs, because their share of the rake was less than .25$, which earns ZERO MPPs.
Correct?
So, therefore, in order for a player to earn a full raked hand, from a single hand at a 10 player table where everybody got cards, the rake for the entire table would have to be at least $10, which is impossible, given that rake is limited to $3.00.
Correct?
And therefore, the best a player at a table of 10 can do, if rake is capped at $3, is earn 1/10 of that rake, or .30$ of rake, or .25 of a MPP. So, therefore, you could play in a $100 pot, and the rake would only be $3 and your share would earn only .25 of a raked hand/MPP.
Correct?
Or, do you mean that each player dealt cards in a hand raked $1 or more for the whole table will earn ONE complete MPP?????
In that case, I am not clear why you use the words "rake divided evenly."
"Divided" implies something is broken up into pieces or shares.
Certainly, that seems to be the way it works for calculation of rake for MGR purposes....but, is the same system being used for MPP calculation?
Wouldn't it be more accurate to state that "Each player dealt cards receives an amount of MPPs which is equivalent to the total amount of rake taken from the pot"?
Which is it, please?
Is the total amount of rake for a hand broken up into shares by dividing by the number of players dealt cards in the hand - and these shares are then used to calculate how many MPPs have been earned by each player?
Or is the total amount of rake for a hand used to determine an equivalent amount of MPPs, which will then be credited to each and every player dealt cards in the hand?
Like I said, if you divide the rake from the hand first - by the number of players dealt cards - then no player at a full table of Ten could ever earn more than .30$ of rake in any one hand, and could, at best, earn only .25 MPPs in a $100 pot.
That, in turn, would mean that players at a full table of ten would have to play in 2,000 hands with pots over $60, and raked at $3 each (but earning only .25 MPPs each) in order to acquire 500 MPPs.
What am I missing here?
As far as Sebassdess' calculation goes: "500 MPP = 50$ - 150$ in rake on a full table. So if a player earn 500 MPP, and you get 40%, you will have 20$ - 60$." - Well, this just does not make sense to me, unless you are allowing players credit for one complete MPP for any hand in which the total rake amounted to at least one dollar.
Otherwise, there is no way a player could generate 500 MPPs from only a $50 share of rake, if 500 MPPs is supposed to mean 500 "raked hands".
If the player's rake was only $50, and you divide that by the 500 hands required, then - for each hand - his share would have to average only $.10 in rake, and the table shows that hands earning only $.10 in rake do not get any credit whatsoever: ZERO MPPs.
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