
Check with your state for the specific law. It varies, but be carefull, its not about the law, its about who interprets the law.
http://www.gambling-law-us.com/State-Laws/
For instance, in Arizona I spoke with the county attorney about a specific definition... I was curious whether a dealer getting tipped for dealing at a game that wasnt being raked would be in violation of...
ARS
13-3304. Benefiting from gambling; classification
A. Except for amusement or regulated gambling, a person commits benefiting from gambling if he knowingly obtains any benefit from gambling.
B. Benefiting from social gambling as a player is not unlawful under this section.
C. Benefiting from gambling is a class 1 misdemeanor
He wouldnt tell me. i expected that answer, but it was worth a shot(if i could get written conformation of the legality of it)
Why did i ask? Because for years in Colorado ( and in other locales)many home games were run this way...
The game was not raked, because the law speciffically stated that a raked game was illegal( paraphrased). BUT, it was implied and enforced by the players that the dealer was to be tipped, well. The person running the game in turn took a percentage of what the dealers made for the night.
Made it legit for the most part. Now days the laws are more speciffic, and yet ambiguous as the same time. Dangerous ground.
Look up your state, see what it says...
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